Given these changes from the original case, what is your diagnosis?
What is your diagnostic explanation?
As compared to the long case, this patient is a 56 year old female who presents to the ED with abdominal pain for the past several days. She states that the pain is located in the left lower quadrant. The pain has been crampy and constant. She has experienced pain like this twice in the past, but those episodes only lasted a couple of days. Nothing makes the pain better or worse. She also complains of nausea, bloating, constipation, and fatigue. She denies vomiting, diarrhea, hematochezia, travel, or sick contacts. She has not eaten anything unusual in the past few days.
VS- Temp 101, HR 72, BP 128/84, RR 14, Height 5’6”, Weight 165, BMI 26.6 General- Alert and oriented. Appears distressed and in pain.
Abdomen- Bowel sounds present. Tenderness to light palpation in LLQ. No rebound tenderness or guarding present.
Genital- Bimanual exam unremarkable.
Labs: CBC is completely normal
